Level 2 Principles of Exercise, Fitness and Health Mock Exam

A qualified gym instructor working with a client

The following Level 2 Principles of Exercise, Fitness and Health (PEFH) mock exam is provided as a FREE resource for anyone working towards a fitness instructor or personal training qualification, that wants to test their knowledge and understanding before they complete their final theory assessment.

The following PEFH mock exam covers a broad-range of knowledge and understanding relating to health, fitness, nutrition and exercise programming. Much of the information in this exam does require a working knowledge of functional anatomy and physiology, although the exam itself does not specifically assess such understanding. You may therefore want to work on the Level 2 Anatomy and Physiology mock exam first.

There are 40 multiple-choice questions presented in this mock exam and you will be required to answer 28 correct (70%) to pass.

Enjoy and good luck!

Level 2 Principles of Exercise, Fitness and Health Mock Exam

1/40: Which of the following health benefits would result from regular walking?

A

Increased blood pressure

B

Decreased risk of CHD

C

Increased resting heart rate

D

Decreased life expectancy

A

Gymnastics

B

Sprinting

C

Swimming

D

Running

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3/40: Which of the following is a long-term adaptation of strength training?

A

Hypertrophy

B

Hyperplasia

C

Hypoplasia

D

Hypotrophy

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4/40: Which of the following intensities aligns with the ACSM’s guidelines for effective cardiovascular exercise?

A

50-100% of max heart rate

B

55-90% max heart rate

C

55-70% Max heart rate

D

50-70% Max heart rate

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5/40: Which of the following is a long-term adaptation of cardiovascular training?

A

Increased lactic acid accumulation

B

Decreased carbon dioxide removal

C

Increased capillarisation

D

Decreased oxygen delivery

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6/40: Which somatotype is characterized by broad shoulders, a narrow waist and a generally muscular build?

A

Ectomorph

B

Mesomorph

C

Endomorph

D

Somatotype

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7/40: On the ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) scale, which of the following would reflect a ‘somewhat hard’ intensity?

A

B

C

D

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8/40: During exercise, failing to cool-down appropriately can cause which of the following to occur?

A

Elevated heart rate post-exercise

B

Lower body temperature post-exercise

C

Over-training syndrome

D

Blood pooling in the lower limbs

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9/40: Which of the following types of muscle contraction are most likely to cause ‘delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMs)?

A

Isometric

B

Isokinetic

C

Concentric

D

Eccentric

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10/40: Which of the following will primarily recruit faster-twitch muscle fibers during resistance training exercises?

A

High load and high repetitions

B

High load and low repetitions

C

Low load and high repetitions

D

Low load and low repetitions

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11/40: Which of the following training objectives requires speed as a key component?

A

Muscular endurance

B

Muscular strength

C

Muscular power

D

Muscular fitness

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12/40: While performing resistance exercises, which if the following will increase the intensity of the exercise?

A

Increasing the speed of repetitions

B

Decreasing the number of repetitions

C

Increasing the lever length

D

Decreasing the range of movement

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13/40: An ability to cope with stressful situations in everyday life and to make good decisions is an example of which component of total fitness?

A

Social fitness

B

Medical fitness

C

Mental fitness

D

Spiritual fitness

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14/40: Which of the following defines physical fitness?

A

Maintaining an active lifestyle that contributes to maintaining levels of cardiovascular and muscular fitness and flexibility

B

Eating a variety of foods from major food groups and maintaining a calorie intake appropriate for needs and demands

C

Being free from disease and illness and making lifestyle choices that maintain this component

D

Awareness of and ability to manage and express emotions assertively and with respect to self and others

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15/40: Which of the following is a genetic factor influencing an individual's training potential?

A

Diet

B

Alcohol

C

Smoking

D

Body type

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16/40: Which of the following is a short-term effect of exercise on blood pressure?

A

Systolic pressure increases

B

Systolic pressure decreases

C

Systolic and diastolic pressure remain the same

D

Systolic and diastolic pressure both decrease

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17/40: According the American College of Sports medicine (ACSM), what is the recommended intensity and duration of stretching to improve flexibility?

A

5-10 seconds with no feelings of discomfort

B

10-15 seconds to a point of mild discomfort

C

10-30 seconds to a point of mild discomfort

D

10-30 seconds to a point of severe discomfort

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18/40: Which of the following symptoms might be an effect of blood pooling?

A

Nauseas, dizziness or fainting

B

Muscle soreness

C

Feeling overly thirsty

D

Feeling overly hungry

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19/40: What is a training plateau?

A

When improvements and adaptations tail off when training load is increased

B

When improvements and adaptations tail off when training load is decreased

C

When improvements and adaptations are lost when training is completely stopped

D

When improvements and adaptations improve when training load is increased

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20/40: Which of the following would increase the intensity of a resistance training exercise?

A

Performing repetitions faster, increasing the contraction time of muscles

B

Performing repetitions slower, increasing the contraction time of muscles

C

Increasing the rest time between sets

D

Increasing the number of sets performed

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21/40: The volume of a training programme is determined by which of the following variables?

A

Frequency and intensity

B

Frequency and time

C

Intensity and time

D

Intensity and type

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22/40: Why are supine exercises after the first trimester of pregnancy contraindicated?

A

They can cause ligaments in the spine to be overstretched

B

They can cause women to lose balance

C

They can reduce blood supply to the baby and mother

D

They can cause spinal fractures

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23/40: Which of the following should be avoided when programming exercise for those aged 14-16?

A

High-intensity strength training

B

Low-intensity strength training

C

Functional pushing exercises

D

Functional pulling exercises

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24/40: According to the Food Standards Agency’s Eatwell Guide, which of the following food groups should make up the largest portion of food?

A

Milk and dairy foods

B

Fruit and vegetables

C

Meat, fish, eggs and beans

D

Foods and drinks high in sugar and/or fats

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25/40: Which of the following is a non-dairy source of dietary protein?

A

Beans

B

Cheese

C

Milk

D

Yoghurt

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26/40: Which of the following is NOT a physiological function of water?

A

Regulation of body temperature

B

Lubrication of joints

C

Elimination of waste products and materials

D

Regulation of heart rate

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27/40: Which of the following is a healthy source of dietary carbohydrates?

A

Chicken

B

Pasta

C

Wholegrains

D

Lamb

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28/40: Which of the following energy balance equations would result in weight gain?

A

Energy intake is greater than energy expenditure

B

Energy intake is less than energy expenditure

C

Energy intake is equal to energy expenditure

D

All of the above

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29/40: Which of the following conditions can occur because of a diet that is low in calcium?

A

Osteoporosis

B

Type 2 diabetes

C

Hypertension

D

Weight gain

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30/40: Why is sunlight exposure so important for optimum bone health?

A

It stimulates the skin to produce vitamin C

B

It stimulates the skin to produce vitamin D

C

It encourages bones to produce calcium

D

It increases the production of phosphorous

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31/40: Obesity is classified as a body mass index greater than what?

A

B

C

D

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32/40: Being able to change direction while maintaining speed is an example of which component of skill-based fitness?

A

Power

B

Reaction time

C

Coordination

D

Agility

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33/40: The phrase ‘use it or lose it’ describes which of the following principles of training?

A

Overload

B

Progression

C

Reversibility

D

Specificity

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34/40: Which of the following training approaches would best help a person to increase their anaerobic threshold?

A

Long-slow distance training

B

Zone 2 training

C

Interval training

D

Cross training

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35/40: Which of the following would be a valid reason for temporarily reducing the intensity of a training programme?

A

As a result of slow progress and limited improvement

B

As a result of rapid progress and fast improvement

C

When returning from injury or illness

D

When cross training

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36/40: Which of the following exercises would be contraindicated for children and adolescents?

A

Prolonged high-intensity exercises

B

Bodyweight exercises

C

Functional movements

D

Resistance training using barbells and dumbbells

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37/40: Which of the following exercises would be contraindicated during the final trimester of pregnancy?

A

Developmental stretches

B

Maintenance stretches

C

Interval training

D

Core stability exercises

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38/40: Which of the following would be a reason to terminate an exercise session with a pregnant client?

A

Sudden swelling of the hands, face or ankles

B

Sudden increase in body temperature

C

Sudden increase in heart rate

D

Sudden muscle cramps

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39/40: Which of the following is a national programme designed to increase the participation of people with disabilities in exercise and physical activity?

A

Exclusive fitness initiative

B

Inclusive fitness initiative

C

Disability discrimination act

D

Equality act

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40/40: According to Government guidelines, what is the minimum amount of physical activity adults in the UK should aim to complete each week?

A

100 minutes of moderate physical activity

B

120 minutes of moderate physical activity

C

150 minutes of moderate physical activity

D

175 minutes of moderate physical activity

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Level 2 Principles of Exercise, Fitness and Health Mock Exam

Level 2 Principles of Exercise, Fitness and Health Mock Exam

1/40: Which of the following health benefits would result from regular walking?

A

B

C

D

2/40: The development of balance would be required for which of the following activities?

A

B

C

D

3/40: Which of the following is a long-term adaptation of strength training?

A

B

C

D

4/40: Which of the following intensities aligns with the ACSM’s guidelines for effective cardiovascular exercise?

A

B

C

D

5/40: Which of the following is a long-term adaptation of cardiovascular training?

A

B

C

D

6/40: Which somatotype is characterized by broad shoulders, a narrow waist and a generally muscular build?

A

B

C

D

7/40: On the ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) scale, which of the following would reflect a ‘somewhat hard’ intensity?

A

B

C

D

8/40: During exercise, failing to cool-down appropriately can cause which of the following to occur?

A

B

C

D

9/40: Which of the following types of muscle contraction are most likely to cause ‘delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMs)?

A

B

C

D

10/40: Which of the following will primarily recruit faster-twitch muscle fibers during resistance training exercises?

A

B

C

D

11/40: Which of the following training objectives requires speed as a key component?

A

B

C

D

12/40: While performing resistance exercises, which if the following will increase the intensity of the exercise?

A

B

C

D

13/40: An ability to cope with stressful situations in everyday life and to make good decisions is an example of which component of total fitness?

A

B

C

D

14/40: Which of the following defines physical fitness?

A

B

C

D

15/40: Which of the following is a genetic factor influencing an individual's training potential?

A

B

C

D

16/40: Which of the following is a short-term effect of exercise on blood pressure?

A

B