Level 2 Anatomy and Physiology Mock Exam

HFE student making notes on Level 2 anatomy and physiology
HFE student making notes on Level 2 anatomy and physiology

This Level 2 Anatomy and Physiology mock exam is provided as a free resource for anyone interested in testing their knowledge and understanding in this subject area. The structure of and format of this exam is consistent with that used in a variety of fitness industry qualifications, including gym instructor courses and personal training qualifications.

This exam is frequently used to assess knowledge and understanding across a broad range of anatomical and physiological subject areas, including the structure and function of the skeletal system, muscular system, respiratory system, cardiovascular system, energy systems and the nervous system.

There are 40 multiple-choice questions presented and you required to answer 28 correct (70%) to pass the exam. The context of many of the questions in this mock exam is exercise and fitness training, because this is the sector the exam is typically used in. 

Good luck.

Level 2 Anatomy and Physiology Mock Exam

1/40: What is the purpose of the heart valves?

A

To allow gaseous exchange

B

To prevent gaseous exchange

C

To allow backflow of blood

D

To prevent backflow of blood

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2/40: Which of the following best describes the flow of blood in systemic circulation?

A

Left ventricle, aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava, right atrium

B

Right ventricle, pulmonary artery, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, pulmonary veins, left atrium

C

Right ventricle, aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava, left atrium

D

Left ventricle, pulmonary artery, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, pulmonary veins, right atrium

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3/40: Which of the following carries oxygenated blood to the heart from the lungs?

A

The aorta

B

The pulmonary vein

C

The venae cava

D

The pulmonary artery

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4/40: Which of the following describes a short bone?

A

It is curved to help absorb stress

B

It provides protection and sites for muscle attachment

C

Located in areas where fine and precise movements are required

D

Found where a large range of movement is required

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5/40: Which of the following muscles lift the ribs to expand the chest cavity?

A

The diaphragm

B

The obliques

C

The intercostals

D

The pectoralis major

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6/40: Which of the following gases diffuses into the alveoli from the capillaries in preparation for exhalation?

A

Nitrogen

B

Carbon Dioxide

C

Oxygen

D

Carbon Monoxide

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7/40: Where would you find the tarsals?

A

The upper arm

B

The wrist

C

The upper leg

D

The foot

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8/40: Which of the following is a major function of the skeleton?

A

It supplies oxygen to working muscles

B

It makes ATP for energy

C

It stores ATP for energy

D

It produces red and white blood cells?

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9/40: Typically, how long would the lactic acid energy system be dominant in the provision of energy during high-intensity exercise?

A

< 1 minute

B

1-2 minutes

C

2-3 minutes

D

> 5 minutes

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10/40: Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?

A

Ilium

B

Sacrum

C

Skull

D

Lumbar vertebra

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11/40: What type of bone is the femur?

A

Long

B

Flat

C

Short

D

Irregular

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12/40: What percentage of oxygen is typically found in exhaled air?

A

16%

B

14%

C

20%

D

22%

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13/40: In the process of ossification, what does bone develop from?

A

Bone marrow

B

Ligaments

C

Cartilage

D

Synovial fluid

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14/40: What effect does regular weight-bearing exercise have on joints?

A

Increased ligament strength

B

Increased mitochondria density

C

Increased joint friction

D

Increased joint volume

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15/40: Which bones meet to form a pivot joint?

A

The femur and tibia

B

The pelvis and hip

C

The radius and ulna

D

The clavicle and humerus

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16/40: Which joint action takes place as the palms are turned upwards?

A

Pronation

B

Supination

C

Adduction

D

Abduction

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17/40: Which of the following muscles is located in the upper arm?

A

Biceps

B

Hamstrings

C

Trapezius

D

Soleus

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18/40: Where would you find cardiac muscle?

A

The veins

B

The arteries

C

The heart

D

The lungs

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19/40: What is the function of actin and myosin filaments?

A

Muscle fibre breakdown

B

Energy production

C

Muscle contraction

D

Regeneration of ATP

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20/40: Which of the following muscle fibres are predominantly recruited during a 10km run?

A

Slow twitch muscle fibres

B

Fast-twitch muscle fibres

C

Glycolytic muscle fibres

D

Intermediate muscle fibres

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21/40: Which one of the following is a type of voluntary muscle?

A

Gastrointestinal

B

Gastrocnemius

C

Cardiac

D

Smooth

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22/40: Which of the following is a contractile component of skeletal muscle fibres?

A

Sarcomere

B

Sarcoplasm

C

Epiphysis

D

Capillary

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23/40: Which of the following muscles is contracting eccentrically during the lowering phase of a lateral raise?

A

Latissimus dorsi

B

Erector spinae

C

Triceps

D

Medial deltoids

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24/40: What term describes a muscle that assists the prime mover?

A

Agonist

B

Antagonist

C

Synergist

D

Fixator

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25/40: Which of the following is the antagonist during a calf raise exercise?

A

Gastrocnemius

B

Tibialis anterior

C

The quadriceps

D

The hamstrings

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26/40: Which of the following describes a concentric contraction?

A

A muscle develops tension and shortens

B

A muscle develops tension and lengthens

C

A muscle develops tension but muscle length remains the same

D

A muscle develops tension to fix a joint in one position

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27/40: What type of activity does the ATP/CP energy system typically fuel?

A

low-intensity - up to 4 seconds

B

High-intensity - up to 10 seconds

C

moderate-intensity - up to 2-minutes

D

Low-intensity - continuous

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28/40: Which of the following nutrients can be stored in the muscles and liver to fuel exercise and physical activity?

A

Glycogen

B

Glucose

C

Lactic acid

D

Glycolysis

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29/40: During an activity that lasts for 20-minutes which energy system will be predominantly used to produce ATP?

A

The phosphocreatine system

B

The aerobic system

C

The lactic acid system

D

The cardiovascular system

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30/40: Which portion of the nervous system controls voluntary skeletal muscle contractions?

A

Autonomic

B

Central nervous system

C

Sympathetic

D

Somatic

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31/40: What is the antagonist during a dumbbell curl exercise?

A

The triceps

B

The biceps

C

The deltoids

D

The pectorals

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32/40: Which of the following is a long-term muscular adaptation to endurance training?

A

Mitochondria in slow-twitch muscle fibres increase in size and density

B

More slow-twitch muscle fibres are created

C

More ATP and CP is stored in the fast-twitch muscle fibres

D

Lactic acid production increases

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33/40: Which of the following is a neural adaptation to exercise?

A

Increased activation of motor units

B

Decreased frequency of nerve impulses

C

Decreased synchronisation of motor unit recruitment

D

Weaker neural connections between nerves

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34/40: What type of muscle is located in the walls of the arteries?

A

Skeletal

B

Smooth

C

Cardiac

D

Pennate

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35/40: Which of the following is a function of platelets?

A

To fight infection

B

A clotting agent to stem bleeding

C

To carry oxygen

D

To carry iron

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36/40: Which of the following features of a motor neuron or nerve receive incoming chemical messages from adjacent nerves?

A

Axon

B

Dendrites

C

Nucleus

D

Terminal branch

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37/40: Which of the following muscles crosses only the elbow joint?

A

Bicep femoris

B

Bicep brachii

C

Brachialis

D

Triceps brachii

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38/40: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a fast-twitch muscle fibre?

A

Red in colour

B

Low in mitochondria

C

High in ATP/CP

D

Low in glycogen

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39/40: Which of the following is a function of myoglobin?

A

To transport oxygen in the muscle

B

To transport protein in the muscle

C

To transport fats in the blood

D

To transport glucose in the blood

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40/40: Which of the following best describes lordosis?

A

Increased curvature of the upper back area

B

Flattening of the curvature in the upper back area

C

Increased curvature of the low back area

D

Flattening of the curvature in the low back area

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Level 2 Anatomy and Physiology Mock Exam

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